🚀 go-pugleaf

js...@cs.indiana.edu wrote:
>tyr...@mail.sgi.net wrote:
>
>>> It has been proven.  It was a theory when Einstein first came up with
>>> it.  It was then proven.  If you wish to find out what some of the
>>> proofs are, then just post something else stupid, and I'll respond
>>> again.
>
>>Oh?  Can you prove it?  I can prove 2 = 3 via
>
>>assume x = y,
>>then 2(x-y)=3(x-y),
>>divide through by (x-y),
>>thus 2=3
>
>>We KNOW that's false because, by definition, dividing by 0 (or x-y in
>>the example) is undefined.  You really can't prove anything, since any
>>proof can contain faulty reasoning or may be based on flawed
>>assumptions, not to mention exceptions to the rule, like classical
>>physics in subatomic situations.
>
>What?!!  Do you know what proof means?
>First, you have to start with provable premises, which your 2=3 proof
>does not (ie., you have a false premesis that 2(x-y)=3(x-y) ).
>
>
     I once lived at a false premises. The premise was that nobody could 
find me if they didn't know where I lived, but that was many years ago ... 
nooooooo!

     It's happening again! It's ... It's ... another

        THREAD THAT WON'T DIE!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

      arghhhhhhhhh