🚀 go-pugleaf

tyr...@mail.sgi.net wrote:

>> It has been proven.  It was a theory when Einstein first came up with
>> it.  It was then proven.  If you wish to find out what some of the
>> proofs are, then just post something else stupid, and I'll respond
>> again.

>Oh?  Can you prove it?  I can prove 2 = 3 via

>assume x = y,
>then 2(x-y)=3(x-y),
>divide through by (x-y),
>thus 2=3

>We KNOW that's false because, by definition, dividing by 0 (or x-y in
>the example) is undefined.  You really can't prove anything, since any
>proof can contain faulty reasoning or may be based on flawed
>assumptions, not to mention exceptions to the rule, like classical
>physics in subatomic situations.

What?!!  Do you know what proof means?
First, you have to start with provable premises, which your 2=3 proof
does not (ie., you have a false premesis that 2(x-y)=3(x-y) ).

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