🚀 go-pugleaf

js...@cs.indiana.edu wrote:
> 
> tyr...@mail.sgi.net wrote:
> 
> >> It has been proven.  It was a theory when Einstein first came up with
> >> it.  It was then proven.  If you wish to find out what some of the
> >> proofs are, then just post something else stupid, and I'll respond
> >> again.
> 
> >Oh?  Can you prove it?  I can prove 2 = 3 via
> 
> >assume x = y,
> >then 2(x-y)=3(x-y),
> >divide through by (x-y),
> >thus 2=3
> 
> >We KNOW that's false because, by definition, dividing by 0 (or x-y in
> >the example) is undefined.  You really can't prove anything, since any
> >proof can contain faulty reasoning or may be based on flawed
> >assumptions, not to mention exceptions to the rule, like classical
> >physics in subatomic situations.
> 
> What?!!  Do you know what proof means?

Yes I do.  And REAL proofs don't exist.

> First, you have to start with provable premises, which your 2=3 proof
> does not (ie., you have a false premesis that 2(x-y)=3(x-y) ).

Last time I checked, given x=y, then x-y = 0, thus 2(x-y)=3(x-y) is the
same as 2(0)=3(0), which is assumed to be true, is it not?