🚀 go-pugleaf

System Administrator wrote:
> Samael,
> 
> On the contrary, 2(x-y)=3(x-y) in mathematics given the information x=y
> does in fact work out.  Since x and y are the same value (hence the equal
> sign), then the value of x-y will be 0.  And all grade schools kids know
> that any number multiplied times 0 is 0.  If this is looked upon from an
> algebraic viewpoint, then 2(x-y)=3(x-y) can be divived by the common value
> using standard postulates and theorems (learned in middle school/high
> school algebra classes) which thereby results in 2 being equal to 3.  This
> is standard everyday math and algebra.  Ask any professor of mathematics
> if you do not believe me (be sure to show them this posting for an
> unbiased answer).
> 
> Regards,
> 
> Robert

Yes, 0 = 0, but 0/0 does not = 0/0.  This is because any number divided
by 0 is UNDEFINED.  This is where that proof breaks down.
1)  let x = y.  Nothing wrong here
2)  0 = 0  <=>  2(x-y) = 3(x-y).   Still fine.
3)  2(x-y)/(x-y) = 3(x-y)/(x-y)  <=>  2 = 3     WRONG.  3X0/0 != 2X0/0

Simple.  The proof is a trick.  Since it has a faulty argument, it is
not a proof.  Thus, as we all know, 2 does not equal 3.  Ask any math
professor you like, and hee'll seee why this is no proof.